Montag, 20. Juli 2015

Cisco 400-101 exam fragen

CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam

Exam Number 400-101 CCIE
Associated Certifications CCIE Routing and Switching
Duration 120 Minutes (90 - 110 questions)
Available Languages English
Register Pearson VUE
Exam Policies Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial Review type of exam questions
The Cisco CCIE Routing and Switching written exam validate that professionals have the expertise to: configure, validate, and troubleshoot complex enterprise network infrastructure; understand how infrastructure components interoperate; and translate functional requirements into specific device configurations.
NO.1 Which congestion-avoidance or congestion-management technique can cause global
synchronization?
A. Tail drop
B. Random early detection
C. Weighted random early detection
D. Weighted fair queuing
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Tail Drop Tail drop treats all traffic equally and does not differentiate between classes of service.
Queues fill during periods of congestion. When the output queue is full and tail drop is in effect,
packets are dropped until the congestion is eliminated and the queue is no longer full. Weighted
Random Early Detection WRED avoids the globalization problems that occur when tail drop is used as
the congestion avoidance mechanism on the router. Global synchronization occurs as waves of
congestion crest only to be followed by troughs during which the transmission link is not fully utilized.
Global synchronization of TCP hosts, for example, can occur because packets are dropped all at once.
Global synchronization manifests when multiple TCP hosts reduce their transmission rates in
response to packet dropping, then increase their transmission rates once again when the congestion
is reduced. Reference.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/qos/configuration/guide/fqos_c/qcfconav.html#w
p1 002048

NO.2 Which statement describes the native VLAN concept in an ISL trunk?
A. It is the VLAN ID that is assigned to untagged packets.
B. It is the VLAN with highest priority.
C. It is the default VLAN for a trunk.
D. There is no native VLAN concept in an ISL trunk.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
ISL has no native VLAN concept because it places the entire ethernet frame in the payload of an ISL
frame. Native VLANs is an 802.1Q specific concept

NO.3 Which OSPF feature supports LSA rate limiting in milliseconds to provide faster convergence?
A. LSA throttling
B. incremental SPF
C. fast hello
D. SPF tuning
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The OSPF Link-State Advertisement (LSA) Throttling feature provides a dynamic mechanism to slow
down link-state advertisement (LSA) updates in OSPF during times of network instability. It also
allows faster Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) convergence by providing LSA rate limiting in
milliseconds. Reference.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/fsolsath.html

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
What is the meaning of the asterisk (*) in the output?
A. PIM neighbor 10.1.5.6 is the RPF neighbor for the group 232.1.1.1 for the shared tree.
B. PIM neighbor 10.1.5.6 is the one that is seen as the RPF neighbor when performing the command
show ip rpf 10.1.4.7.
C. PIM neighbor 10.1.5.6 is the winner of an assert mechanism.
D. The RPF neighbor 10.1.5.6 is invalid.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
show ip mroute Field Descriptions Field Description
RPF neighbor or RPF nbr IP address of the upstream router to the source. Tunneling indicates that
this router is sending data to the RP encapsulated in register packets. The hexadecimal number in
parentheses indicates to which RP it is registering. Each bit indicates a different RP if multiple RPs per
group are used. If an asterisk (*) appears after the IP address in this field, the RPF neighbor has been
learned through an assert. Reference.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/ipmulti/command/reference/fiprmc_r/1rfmult3.ht
ml

NO.5 Like OSPFv2, OSPFv3 supports virtual links. Which two statements are true about the IPv6
address of a virtual neighbor? (Choose two.)
A. It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining the hello packets received from the
virtual neighbor.
B. It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining link LSA received by the virtual
neighbor.
C. It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the router LSAs received by the
virtual neighbor.
D. Only prefixes with the LA-bit not set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.
E. It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the intra-area-prefix-LSAs received
by the virtual neighbor.
F. Only prefixes with the LA-bit set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.
Answer: E,F

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Explanation:
OSPF for IPv6 assumes that each router has been assigned link-local unicast addresses on each of the
router's attached physical links. On all OSPF interfaces except virtual links, OSPF packets are sent
using the interface's associated link-local unicast address as the source address. A router learns the
link-local addresses of all other routers attached to its links and uses these addresses as next-hop
information during packet forwarding. On virtual links, a global scope IPv6 address MUST be used as
the source address for OSPF protocol packets. The collection of intra-area-prefix-LSAs originated by
the virtual neighbor is examined, with the virtual neighbor's IP address being set to the first prefix
encountered with the LA-bit set. Reference. https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5340

NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
You are bringing a new MPLS router online and have configured only what is shown to bring LDP up.
Assume that the peer has been configured in a similar manner. You verify the LDP peer state and see
that there are no neighbors. What will the output of show mpls ldp discovery show?
A. Interfaces: Ethernet0/0 (ldp): xmit
B. Interfaces: Ethernet0/0 (ldp): xmit/recv LDP Id: 25.25.25.2:0; IP addr: 192.168.12.2
C. Interfaces: Ethernet0/0 (ldp): xmit/recv LDP Id: 192.168.12.2:0; no route
D. Interfaces: Ethernet0/0 (ldp): xmit/recv LDP Id: 25.25.25.2:0; no route
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a reason to use DHCPv6 on a network that uses SLAAC?
A. To get a record of the IPs that are used by the clients
B. To push DNS and other information to the clients
C. No reason, because there is no need for DHCPv6 when using SLAAC
D. Because DHCPv6 can be used only in stateful mode with SLAAC to record the IPs of the clients
E. Because DHCPv6 can be used only in stateless mode with SLAAC to record the IPs of the clients
F. Because DHCPv6 is required to use first-hop security features on the switches
Answer: B

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Explanation:
SLAAC is by far the easiest way to configure IPv6 addresses, simply because you don't have to
configure any IPv6 address. With SLAAC, a host uses the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) to
determine its IP address and default routers. Using SLAAC, a host requests and listens for Router
Advertisements (RA) messages, and then taking the prefix that is advertised to form a unique address
that can be used on the network. For this to work, the prefix that is advertised must advertise a prefix
length of 64 bits (i.e., /64). But the most significant of Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) is
it provided no mechanism for configuring DNS resolver information.Therefore SLACC can be used
along with DHCPv6 (Stateless) to push DNS and other information to the clients.

NO.8 Which statement about the BGP originator ID is true?
A. The route reflector always sets the originator ID to its own router ID.
B. The route reflector sets the originator ID to the router ID of the route reflector client that injects
the route into the AS.
C. The route reflector client that injects the route into the AS sets the originator ID to its own router
ID.
D. The originator ID is set to match the cluster ID.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
An RR reflecting the route received from a RR-Client adds:
Reference. https://sites.google.com/site/amitsciscozone/home/bgp/bgp-route-reflectors

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Exam Code: 400-101
Prüfungsname: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.0
Aktulisiert: 20-07-2015, 400-101 prüfungsfragen
Nummer: 650 Q&As
400-101 exam fragen : 400-101 prüfungsfragen
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